(2) If the US political parties are really just one distinct group, then how?
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How does the following support the above two positions:

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Crazyirishman wrote:1 party. Iff you look back historically to like the 1800's the democrats were in the south and favored slavery and all that jazz while the republicans were more for civil liberties but were in the north. Unless there was like a mass migration that I missed, It appears that they switched sides for the most part.
Pack Rat wrote:if it quacks like a duck and walk like a duck, it's still fascism
viewtopic.php?f=8&t=241668&start=200#p5349880
saxitoxin wrote:Yes, the U.S. is functionally a one-party state (whether or not the Republicans and Democrats keep separate office space is irrelevant). I just did a random sample of the first 13 laws voted on in the second session of the 110th Senate. (http://www.senate.gov/legislative/LIS/r ... _110_2.htm) If this trend is consistent, then:-39% of proposed laws end up being enacted with 90%+ of the chamber voting as a block
-70% of proposed laws end up being enacted with 80%+ of the chamber voting as a block
-92% of proposed laws end up being enacted with 70%+ of the chamber voting as a block
BigBallinStalin wrote:(1) If the US political parties are two distinct groups, how so?
(2) If the US political parties are really just one distinct group, then how?
Lagniappe
How does the following support the above two positions:
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DoomYoshi wrote:The DW-Nominates scores shows that generally how an individual senator will vote is based on party. That clearly supports the two-party hypothesis.
A way to statistically test this would be: give things a value on how "conservative" or "liberal" they are. Determine if a senator votes for one based on party, controlling for party vote.
Basically, you are testing whether a Republican is more likely to vote for a liberal measure. You need to control for the party vote, because if the entire party votes for a a liberal measure it doesn't make it as extreme, right? Then you get a mean and distribution of senators votes, and you get another mean and distribution which is a composite for the whole party. These 2 means can be tested against each other, but you can also look at the bounds of the distribution. If the most conservative Democrat supports liberal measures 51% of the time, but the most liberal Republican supports liberal measures 49% of the time, then there is no overlap at all, and you can infer that likely the two populations are different.
saxitoxin wrote:Yes, the U.S. is functionally a one-party state (whether or not the Republicans and Democrats keep separate office space is irrelevant). I just did a random sample of the first 13 laws voted on in the second session of the 110th Senate. (http://www.senate.gov/legislative/LIS/r ... _110_2.htm) If this trend is consistent, then:-39% of proposed laws end up being enacted with 90%+ of the chamber voting as a block
-70% of proposed laws end up being enacted with 80%+ of the chamber voting as a block
-92% of proposed laws end up being enacted with 70%+ of the chamber voting as a block
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A bill to provide authority for the Federal Government to purchase and insure certain types of troubled assets for the purposes of providing stability to and preventing disruption in the economy and financial system and protecting taxpayers, to amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to provide incentives for energy production and conservation, to extend certain expiring provisions, to provide individual income tax relief, and for other purposes.
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HR6049 - 93-2-5
A bill to amend the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 to provide incentives for energy production and conservation, to extend certain expiring provisions, to provide individual income tax relief, and for other purposes.
S3001 - 88-8-4
An original bill to authorize appropriations for fiscal year 2009 for military activities of the Department of Defense, for military construction, and for defense activities of the Department of Energy, to prescribe military personnel strengths for such fiscal year, and for other purposes.
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HR3121 - 92-6-2
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HR493 - 95-0-5
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S2739 - 91-4-5
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S3321 - 84-12-4
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AndyDufresne wrote:Crazyirishman wrote:1 party. Iff you look back historically to like the 1800's the democrats were in the south and favored slavery and all that jazz while the republicans were more for civil liberties but were in the north. Unless there was like a mass migration that I missed, It appears that they switched sides for the most part.
The switch is usually seen around 1912 I think, back when Teddy Roosevelt was running and trying to start up a progressive Bull Moose Party I believe.
BigBallinStalin wrote:(1) If the US political parties are two distinct groups, how so?
(2) If the US political parties are really just one distinct group, then how?
Lagniappe
How does the following support the above two positions:
(Sauce)
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