Metsfanmax wrote:BigBallinStalin wrote:(1) Or could there be other relevant variables? Like other-top income tax rates? Changes in international trade policy? Liberalization of various industries? Etc.
What the report demonstrates more than anything else is that there is no evidence for the claim that simply reducing the top tax rate increases economic growth. For the reasons you're hinting at, it does not necessarily prove the converse (that increasing the top tax rate is good for the economy). But over many decades it demonstrates that with a continual decline in the top marginal tax rate has not been correlated with a general increase in economic growth over that period (and they measured it a few ways, such as productivity and per capita GDP, both of which increase with the top marginal tax rate). They also determined that decreasing the top tax rates tends to concentrate income in the most wealthy. It may not be a smoking gun that increasing the tax rate on the wealthiest is always a good strategy, but it certainly disproves the claim that lowering taxes on the very wealthy has caused economic growth.
Again, if you want to show that "lowering taxes on the very wealthy has not caused economic growth" you can take the variable (top income tax rates) and narrow it down to 1% or whatever you want.
When I ask about other relevant variables, I'm talking about
ommited-variable bias. You're stuck thinking in terms of the two variables used in the study. You should think about the variables which were omitted.
Metsfanmax wrote:(2) Suppose we shift that top percentage on income tax rates. Make top income tax rates = top 1%, and you get results A. Or make them the top 20% and you get results B. If you wish to show that "those fluctuations did not appear to affect the nationās economic growth", then opt for the 1% top income tax rates because 1% is less than 20%. In other words, a top 1% income tax rate will have a relatively less impact on economic growth.
That question is important but not relevant to current politics, because the tax rates on the "rich" are usually described in the context of changing the tax rate on the top 1% of earners.[/quote]
It's completely relevant because tax cuts affect more than top 1% income tax payers. To what degree and how much are questions which have not been clarified ITT. It's relevant because it affects the findings of the study.
Besides, the 'rich' can be labeled as those making over $250,000, or it can refer to those making over $100,000. Or even those earning over $1,000,000 per year. Obviously, it's a vague term which lends itself to arbitrary reasoning.
Metsfanmax wrote:(3) Why do they omit the data before WW2? Gee... would that lead to an undesirable outcome?
Or is it after WW2?
The years 1933-1945 were marked by a large economic depression and then a large war. Those were the primary drivers of economic growth, and it would be quite difficult to make conclusions about this period one way or the other when it comes to how the top tax rate affected marginal growth. During WWII, tax rates on
everyone increased, so it's impossible to make assessments on how just the change on the top earners affected things.[/quote]
If you omit data that is relevant, it doesn't look good on the statistics--especially if you wish to examine tax rates, capital gains taxes, and their relationship on economic growth. I'm not sure how to make that any clearer for you.
Furthermore, if the omitted data provides a desirable result (i.e. X1 and X2 have no influence on Y1), then it would be tempting for the statistician to omit that data (e.g. pre-WW2).